For Universalism to be False...

    The large majority of Christians believe that not all people, in fact very few people, will be saved. It’s simple, they say, the Bible just tells us that not all people will be saved, so God must just not want all people to be saved! Or - wait - maybe He does want all people to be saved, but He just isn’t powerful enough to save all people. Either way, it’s definitely what the Bible teaches, isn’t it? And the word of God must always be our guideline for figuring out the truth.

    So let’s take a look at everything that would need to happen for universal reconciliation to be false, and for less than all people to be saved, according to the word of God.

    The purpose of the cross would fail

According to Paul in his letter to the Colossians, the very purpose of the cross is to reconcile all things to Christ:

who is the image of the invisible God, first-born of all creation, because in him were the all things created, those in the heavens, and those upon the earth, those visible, and those invisible, whether thrones, whether lordships, whether principalities, whether authorities; all things through him, and for him, have been created, and himself is before all, and the all things in him have consisted. And himself is the head of the body — the assembly — who is a beginning, a first-born out of the dead, that he might become in all [things] — himself — first, because in him it did please all the fulness to tabernacle, and through him to reconcile the all things to himselfhaving made peace through the blood of his crossthrough him, whether the things upon the earth, whether the things in the heavens. (Colossians 1:15-20)

According to this passage, the purpose of Christ’s “making peace through the blood of His cross” is to reconcile all things, whether in the heavens or on the earth, back to Himself. The “all things” that will be reconciled is the same “all things” that were created in, through, and for Christ, and which He is preeminent over.

    For anything less than every being (angelic or human) to be reconciled would mean that either Christ is not preeminent over all things, or else that the very purpose of the cross failed. Either way, this is a massive problem for the position that not all beings will be reconciled and saved.

    Jesus’ wasn’t powerful enough...

Another fact that we are told of in scripture is that Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross was ultimately effective for every single person, regardless of belief or unbelief:

But, not as the offence so also [is] the free gift; for if by the offence of the one the many did die, much more did the grace of God, and the free gift in grace of the one man Jesus Christ, abound to the many; and not as through one who did sin [is] the free gift, for the judgment indeed [is] of one to condemnation, but the gift [is] of many offences to a declaration of “Righteous,” for if by the offence of the one the death did reign through the one, much more those, who the abundance of the grace and of the free gift of the righteousness are receiving, in life shall reign through the one — Jesus Christ. So, then, as through one offence to all men [it is] to condemnation, so also through one declaration of “Righteous” [it is] to all men to justification of life; for as through the disobedience of the one man, the many were constituted sinners: so also through the obedience of the one, shall the many be constituted righteous. (Rom. 5:15-19)

for the love of the Christ doth constrain us, having judged thus: that if one for all died, then the whole died, and for all he died, that those living, no more to themselves may live, but to him who died for them, and was raised again. So that we henceforth have known no one according to the flesh, and even if we have known Christ according to the flesh, yet now we know him no more; so that if any one [is] in Christ — [he is] a new creature; the old things did pass away, lo, become new have the all things. And the all things [are] of God, who reconciled us to Himself through Jesus Christ, and did give to us the ministration of the reconciliation, how that God was in Christ — a world reconciling to Himself, not reckoning to them their trespasses; and having put in us the word of the reconciliation (2 Cor. 5:14-19)

for one [is] God, one also [is] mediator of God and of men, the man Christ Jesus, who did give himself a ransom for all — the testimony in its own times (1 Tim. 2:5-6)

If Paul’s words in these passages are to be believed, then Jesus truly died as a ransom for all, for every single person who is affected by Adam’s sin (that is, all of humanity without exception). So, if not every person is saved, then His sacrifice was incomplete and did not affect everyone that He intended it to.

    After all, God did place all flesh under Jesus’ care (John 17:2), and since Jesus loves even His enemies (Matt. 5:43-48), if anything less than all flesh is saved, it must be because Jesus wasn’t powerful enough to reach every person that He intended to through His righteous work on the cross.

    ...or Jesus wasn’t loving enough

There is another option, though, since after all the Bible tells us that not all people will be saved (doesn’t it?). Jesus’ sacrifice might not have been incomplete, it might just have been ineffective for the vast majority of humanity. Perhaps He gave us the ability to choose whether we are saved, or tormented eternally, based on insufficient knowledge (1 Cor. 13:12); atheists and non-Christians just aren’t smart enough, or good enough, to choose the right thing.

    After all, that’s what the Bible tells us, isn’t it? Let’s check.

At that time Jesus answering said, “I do confess to Thee, Father, Lord of the heavens and of the earth, that thou didst hide these things from wise and understanding ones, and didst reveal them to babes. Yes, Father, because so it was good pleasure before Thee.” (Matt. 11:25)

And the disciples having come near, said to [Jesus], “Wherefore in similes dost thou speak to them?” And he answering said to them that — “To you it hath been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of the heavens, and to these it hath not been given” (Matt. 13:10-11)

Jesus answered, therefore, and said to them, “Murmur not one with another; no one is able to come unto me, if the Father who sent me may not draw him, and I will raise him up in the last day” (John 6:43-44)

And the nations hearing were glad, and were glorifying the word of the Lord, and did believe — as many as were appointed to life age-during (Acts 13:48)

for God did shut up together the whole to unbelief, that to the whole He might do kindness. (Rom. 11:32)

For I say, through the grace that was given to me, to every one who is among you, not to think above what it behoveth to think; but to think so as to think wisely, as to each God did deal a measure of faith (Rom. 12:3)

for by grace ye are having been saved, through faith, and this [faith] not of you — of God the gift, not of works, that no one may boast (Eph. 1:11)

Need I go on? Scripture is quite clear that even our belief is simply granted to us by God. This means that, if Jesus’ sacrifice did not save all people, and it’s not because it was incomplete, then He must have simply wanted the vast majority of people to be tormented eternally.

    What kind of sadistic and bipolar god would say that he does not delight in the death of the wicked (Ezek. 18:23; 33:11), that he loves even his enemies (Matt. 5:43-48), and that he wants all people to know the truth and be saved (1 Tim. 2:4), and then turn around and send the vast majority of humanity to eternal torment with no hope of escape, for the sole purpose of his pleasure? But isn’t that what the Bible says?

    God would be made a liar

The Bible tells us that God has sworn by Himself that all people will bow to Him in praise:

“Look to Me, and be saved, All you ends of the earth! For I am God, and there is no other. I have sworn by Myself; The word has gone out of My mouth in righteousness, And shall not return, That to Me every knee shall bow, Every tongue shall take an oath. He shall say, ‘Surely in YHWH I have righteousness and strength.’” (Isaiah 45:22-24 NKJV)

As Paul later intentionally misquotes this passage to prove a point (Php. 2:9-11), He reapplies it to Christ, saying that every person will confess that Jesus is Lord. And yet, we are told in 1 Corinthians 12:3 that no one can say “Jesus is Lord” except by the Holy Spirit.

    This means that God has sworn by His very self-existence that every person will be reconciled to Him, and confess the Lord Jesus by the Holy Spirit. And since God cannot lie (Num. 23:19; Titus 1:2; Heb. 6:18), it is impossible that any person could not be saved. But the Bible says that not everyone will be saved, right?

    God would be made a sinner

According to scripture, God is actively willing that all men be saved:

I exhort, then, first of all, there be made supplications, prayers, intercessions, thanksgivings, for all men: for kings, and all who are in authority, that a quiet and peaceable life we may lead in all piety and gravity, for this [is] right and acceptable before God our Saviour, who doth will all men to be saved, and to come to the full knowledge of the truth. (1 Timothy 2:1-4)

If this is truly God’s will, then it is quite literally a guideline that He has set for Himself. That means that if anything less than all people are saved, God is a sinner, because “sin” simply means “to miss the mark”. And God can’t sin, so He cannot miss the mark that He set for Himself, which means that all people must eventually be saved.

    But wait, doesn’t this passage just mean that God wills all kinds of men to be saved? Isn’t He only referring to the body of Christ in this passage, which includes both Jews and Gentiles? No, that’s not what this passage is talking about. Paul includes even “kings and all who are in authority” in the “all men” whom God wills to be saved, which means that if even Nero - the persecutor of Christians who was emperor of Rome at the time - is not saved, then God has sinned.

    Conclusion

I hope that this post has shown you that, no, in fact, the Bible does not say that not all people will be saved. It does say that few people will enter the kingdom of God, and that many will go to Gehenna instead; it says nothing about whether all people will eventually receive the gift of salvation and be reconciled to God, which we know from elsewhere in scripture will happen. So we can rest assured that the cross will not fail, that Jesus is both powerful enough and loving enough to save everyone, and that God is not a liar nor a sinner; all people will be saved.

Defying Death: A Defense of the Doctrine of Soul Sleep (part 2 of 2)

Part 1: https://thechristianuniversalist.blogspot.com/2021/12/defying-death-defense-of-doctrine-of.html

    In the previous post of this series, I presented the positive case for soul sleep (the doctrine that the dead have no conscious experience) from scripture. However, I wasn’t able to present the comparatively little scriptural evidence that is often produced against soul sleep by those who believe the traditional model of the Christian afterlife. In this article, I will describe the arguments used against soul sleep, and show why these fail to contradict the clear biblical truth that those who have died are truly dead. The common view of the afterlife cannot be derived solely from the Bible unless a framework of Platonic philosophy is placed over the text.

    The parable of the rich man and Lazarus

This is the most common objection raised against the idea of soul sleep. In Luke 16:19-31, Jesus presents a parable in which a rich man and a beggar named Lazarus die, and their souls go to Hades and the “bosom of Abraham” respectively. Does this not demonstrate conclusively that, after death, our consciousness does live on and that Hades is a place of conscious torment, rather than simply “the Unseen”? First, let’s take a look at what this passage actually says: 

“And — a certain man was rich, and was clothed in purple and fine linen, making merry sumptuously every day, and there was a certain poor man, by name Lazarus, who was laid at his porch, full of sores, and desiring to be filled from the crumbs that are falling from the table of the rich man; yea, also the dogs, coming, were licking his sores. And it came to pass, that the poor man died, and that he was carried away by the messengers to the bosom of Abraham — and the rich man also died, and was buried; and in the hades having lifted up his eyes, being in torments, he doth see Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom, and having cried, he said, Father Abraham, deal kindly with me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and may cool my tongue, because I am distressed in this flame.

“And Abraham said, Child, remember that thou did receive — thou — thy good things in thy life, and Lazarus in like manner the evil things, and now he is comforted, and thou art distressed; and besides all these things, between us and you a great chasm is fixed, so that they who are willing to go over from hence unto you are not able, nor do they from thence to us pass through.

“And he said, I pray thee, then, father, that thou mayest send him to the house of my father, for I have five brothers, so that he may thoroughly testify to them, that they also may not come to this place of torment.

“Abraham saith to him, They have Moses and the prophets, let them hear them;

“and he said, No, father Abraham, but if any one from the dead may go unto them, they will reform.

“And he said to him, If Moses and the prophets they do not hear, neither if one may rise out of the dead will they be persuaded.” (YLT)

First of all, it is important to recognize that this passage is a parable. In fact, it is the last of five parables that Jesus used to condemn the Pharisees: the parable of the lost sheep, of the lost drachma, of the prodigal son, of the unjust steward, and finally of the rich man and Lazarus. Like Jesus’ other parables, we must recognize that many, or most, aspects of this story are allegorical and do not describe real life. Otherwise, if it were to be understood completely literally, we would need to believe the following things:

1. That angels (“messengers”) physically carry the disembodied souls of dead people to paradise.

2. That some people’s souls will enter Abraham’s chest cavity after death (“the bosom of Abraham”).

3. That whether you go to torment or bliss after death is decided by whether you received good or bad things in life.

4. That those who are in paradise are able to see those in Hades being tormented.

I haven’t yet met a single Christian who believes in all four of these things, and very few that believe in even one of them. It is interesting, then, that the vast majority of Christians choose to believe that the aspect of conscious existence in the afterlife should be understood literally, whereas all other aspects of this parable are figurative. Instead, we should recognize that, like Jesus’ other parables, all aspects are allegorical for real-life events.

    Keeping this in mind, and using Old Testament imagery as a guide, the correct interpretation of this parable becomes clear. Rather than being meant as an accurate depiction of the afterlife, it is meant to be a condemnation of priestly Israel and the Jewish religious leaders. The rich man, wearing priestly garments of “purple and fine linen” (Exod. 39:27-29), represents the Pharisees (and the Jewish people in general) who, being God’s chosen people, were spiritually rich and yet abused this authority. Like the patriarch Judah and the contemporary high priest Caiaphas, the rich man has five brothers. Similarly, the beggar named Lazarus represents the Gentiles, both of whom spiritually eat with the dogs (Matt. 15:22-26; Mk. 7:26-27).

    This parable, therefore, is not about the state of conscious existence of the dead, but rather about how God is now rejecting His people the Israelites in favor of the Gentiles. The rich man (priestly Israel) has been rejected and cast into torments, in contrast to the spiritual richness that he had experienced previously, whereas the beggar (the Gentiles) has been exalted beyond his previous spiritual lowness. And it is very true that Israel was not convinced even when a man rose from the dead (v. 31), as they remained hardened even after the resurrection of both Lazarus and Christ. Therefore, this parable does not demonstrate the existence of a conscious afterlife prior to the resurrection, but allegorically represents the contrast between God’s treatment of Israel and the Gentile nations.

    “Today you will be with me in paradise”

And he was saying, “Jesus, remember me when you may come to your kingdom!” And he [Jesus] said to him, “Verily I say to you[,?] today[,?] you will be with me in the paradise.” (Lk. 23:42-43)

This is another passage that is often used to argue against soul sleep, since Jesus tells the thief on the cross that they will be together in “the paradise” that very day. However, the adverb “today” could either modify the verb “say” or “be [in paradise]”; if the first, then it is not incompatible with soul sleep. Since there is no punctuation in the original Greek, the comma could be placed before or after “today”; both options are entirely possible.

    Furthermore, when the surrounding context is considered, it is impossible that Jesus could have been with the thief in “the paradise” that very day. We are told in John 20:17 that Jesus had not yet ascended to the Father after His resurrection, and furthermore, Jesus went to Sheol/Hades upon His death (Ps. 16:10; Acts 2:27, 31) which is considered to be the place of torment in the traditional afterlife, not paradise. Thus, since Jesus did not Himself go to paradise on that day, the thief could not have been with Him there, and so the adverb “today” must modify the verb “say” rather than “be [in paradise].”

    This is often countered by the assertion that to say, “Verily I say to you today,” would be redundant (since it could not be anything other than “today” that Jesus said it on). However, it was actually a common Hebrew/Aramaic idiom to emphasize the solemnity of a statement by adding the word “today” or “this day” (e.g., Deut. 4:26, 39, 40; 5:1; 6:6; 7:11; 8:1, 11, 19; 9:3; etc.). In fact, two such statements are made elsewhere in Luke-Acts:

“Consequently I testify to you in this very day that I am innocent of the blood of all.” (Acts 20:26)

“Concerning all that I am accused of by [the] Jews, King Agrippa, I have supposed myself happy, being about to defend myself before you today.” (Acts 26:2)

Thus, the most likely interpretation of Jesus’ words in Lk. 23:43 is that He was making the solemn declaration, “Verily I say to you on this day, that you will be with Me in the paradise.” He was not claiming that the thief would be with Him in paradise on that very day, for such an interpretation would contradict His clear statement that He had not yet ascended to the Father after His resurrection (Jn. 20:17). Instead, the thief would be in paradise on the day that Jesus “may come to [His] kingdom” (Lk. 23:42) — that is, at the resurrection of the saints. This passage, therefore, is not evidence against soul sleep.

    Giving up the spirit

Despite the evidence presented in my last post that shows that, throughout scripture, people are considered to be represented by their (dead) bodies after they die, some people suggest that this is only the perception of those who are still living, and that they are actually represented by their spirit (or “breath of life”) which returns to God when they die (Ecc. 12:7). It is then argued that the following passages prove that believers enter the presence of God when they die:

When, then, Jesus took the sour wine, he said, “It has been finished.” And having bowed [his] head, he gave up the spirit. (Jn. 19:30)

Yet he being full of holy spirit, having gazed into the heaven, he saw [the] glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God. And he said, “Lo, I behold the the heavens having been opened, and the Son of Man standing at God’s right”... And they were stoning Stephen, he calling out and saying, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.” Now having fallen [on] the knees, he cried out in a great voice, “Lord, may you not put to them this sin.” And this having said, he fell asleep. (Acts 7:55-56, 59-60)

The first problem with this theory is that the human spirit is not conscious, and a consciousness (or soul) only forms when a body and spirit are combined (Gen. 2:7). The spirit is more like a ‘power source’ for the body which animates it [1], producing consciousness (for the best example of this, see Ps. 104:29-30; also Ps. 146:4; Jas. 2:26). Furthermore, because everyone’s spirit, whether righteous or wicked, returns to God when they die, this would mean that every single person enters paradise in God’s presence upon their death, which not a single Christian that I know would espouse.

    However, there is an even greater problem with this theory. In fact, the two passages which are most often quoted in support of it - Jn. 19:30 and Acts 7:59 - actually work against it when put into context. Although Jesus gave up His spirit to God when He died on the cross, three days later He stated that He had “not yet ascended to the Father” (Jn. 20:17)! Jesus’ spirit cannot be identified with Jesus Himself, because while Jesus was dead, He was not with God, where His spirit was. Furthermore, immediately after we are told that Stephen gave his spirit to Jesus, we are also told that Stephen “fell asleep” and “devout men buried him” (Acts 7:60; 8:2). Was it Stephen’s spirit that fell asleep and was buried? Obviously not. Therefore, Stephen’s spirit was not Stephen himself, but merely the animating force which kept Stephen alive.

    Therefore, the spirit cannot be identified with a person’s consciousness after death. Indeed, when God first spoke to Adam about his impending mortality and death, He told him, “You are dust and to dust you will return,” not “you are a breath of life given by me and to me you will return” (Gen. 3:19 cf. 2:7; Ecc. 12:7). Thus, the breath of life or spirit which returns to God upon death is not the person themself, but is the animating force which is given by God, apart from which a person is simply dead (Jas. 2:26).

    To depart and be with Christ

For I know that this will turn out to salvation for me through your prayer and supply of the spirit of Jesus Christ, according to my eager expectation and hope that I will be ashamed in nothing, but in all confidence (as also always now) Christ will be magnified in my body, whether through life or through death. For to me, to live [is] Christ, and to die [is] profit. Yet if [I] live in flesh, this is [the] fruit of work to me. And what will I choose? I do not know! Now I am pressed from the two, having the desire to depart and be with Christ, for [this is] much more excellent; yet to stay on in the flesh [is] more necessary because of you. (Php. 1:19-24)

This passage is considered by many to prove that, at death, believers continue to exist in a ‘disembodied’ state together with Jesus. But is this the best interpretation of Paul’s words? I would argue that it is not. According to my understanding of Paul’s testimony elsewhere in 1 Thess. 4:13-18, at the moment of death, a person loses consciousness - just as if they had “fallen asleep” - and their next conscious moment will be their resurrection at Christ’s coming. Paul’s death, from his perspective, would bring him immediately into the presence of Christ.

    Thus, this verse is fairly equivocal on the issue of soul sleep, since whether soul sleep is true or not, the very next conscious moment after death (for the believer) will be in the presence of Christ. It is eisegetical to read the Platonic idea of the soul’s immortality into this verse when another, more biblical understanding is just as plausible.

    To be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord?

For we know that if our earthly house, the tent, may have been destroyed, we have a building from God, a house not hand-made, age-during in the heavens. For also in this we groan, longing to be over-clothed [with] our dwelling out of heaven. And if indeed [we are] having been over-clothed, we will not be found naked. For also we, the [ones] being in the tent, groan, being burdened, on which we do not wish to be unclothed, but to be over-clothed, that the mortal may be swallowed by the life.

Now the [One] having brought us about for this very [thing is] God, having given to us the pledge of the spirit, therefore [we are] always being of good courage and perceiving that, being in-home in the body, we are absent from the Lord (for through faith we walk, not through sight). Now we are of good courage, and are more pleased to be out-of-home out of the body, and in-home with the Lord. (2 Cor. 5:1-8)

Paul is often misquoted as saying that “to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord.” This is taken to mean that it is possible to exist in a disembodied form together with Jesus. However, this is not actually what Paul says in this passage, and a proper understanding of this passage requires a full grasp of the metaphors which he uses to compare and contrast our current mortal body and our resurrection immortal body.

    First, he describes the mortal body as an “earthly house,” a temporary tent which can be destroyed, and our future resurrection body as an “age-during house in the heavens.” He then moves into another metaphor, using verbs related to clothing, describing our resurrection as an “over-clothing” and our death as being “unclothed” and “found naked.” Notably, he states that “we do not wish to be unclothed” (i.e., die and be without a living body), which is incongruent with the traditional understanding of the following verses that sees him as extolling the ‘disembodied’ afterlife.

    Finally, in verses 6 through 8, Paul moves back to the “houses” metaphor and begins using the Greek verbs ενδημεω (lit. “in-home”) and εκδημεω (lit. “out-of-home”) to describe a person’s relation to their mortal and resurrection bodies. He contrasts being in-home in the body and out-of-home away from the Lord with being out-of-home away from the body and in-home with the Lord. If taken out of context (as it so often is), this may seem to suggest that it is possible to exist in a disembodied form with Jesus.

    However, in the context of the “houses” metaphor, it is clear that Paul is instead saying that, when we are out of the “earthly house” of our pre-resurrection body (our temporary tent), we will be in the “heavenly dwelling” of our resurrection body (our age-during house), with the Lord. This is the primary import of the verbs “in-home” and “out-of-home.” Thus, this does not contradict soul sleep - on the contrary, it provides further evidence that our hope is in the resurrection and not in any ‘disembodied’ afterlife.

    The souls under the altar

And when he opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of the [ones] having been slain because of the word of God, and because of the testimony which they had held. And they were crying out in a great voice, saying, “Until when, O Master Holy and True, do you refrain from judging and avenging our blood from the [ones] dwelling upon the earth?” And white robes were given to each of them, and it was said to them that they will rest a little time, until their fellow servants may also be fulfilled, and their brothers, being about to be killed as also they. (Rev. 6:9-11)

This is the last remaining scriptural argument against soul sleep, and the strongest argument, since it is the only place in the Bible where apparently ‘disembodied souls’ are actually described. These souls are said to cry out for vengeance and be given robes to wear. First, I’d like to preface my interpretation of this verse by saying that a correct view of death must be able to harmonize all of scripture without contradicting any passage. So if anyone would like to build a doctrine of death and the afterlife solely on this passage, they would need to find a way to explain away the vast scriptural evidence for soul sleep.

    Now, if we interpret this verse literally, we would have to conclude that the souls of these martyrs will be living at the time that this vision foresees, the opening of the fifth seal. However, near the end of the prophecy, it is said that the very same souls of the tribulation martyrs “come to life” at the first resurrection (Rev. 20:4), which is long after the events of the fifth seal. If their souls only “come to life” at that time, how could they possibly be alive in heaven prior to that point? Furthermore, is it really reasonable to believe that once a person is martyred, their soul resides underneath a giant talking altar (Rev. 16:7) in the throne room of God? And can a ‘disembodied soul’ wear physical clothing? All of these oddities and inconsistencies point toward the likely possibility that something more symbolic is going on in these verses.

    To properly interpret the book of Revelation, we need to put it in its proper context. Throughout this prophecy, symbols from throughout the Old Testament are used, and are necessary to understand much of the prophecy’s significance. Otherwise, we would have to believe that Jesus is really a giant bloody lamb in the throne room of God, and that there will be a literal seven-headed beast rising from the sea with a woman on its back. But what context from the Old Testament can help us understand the “souls of the martyrs” underneath the altar? Consider the following:

1. We know from the book of Leviticus that “the soul is in the blood, and [God] has given it on the altar to make atonement” (Lev. 17:11 cf. 4:7). Likewise, in Revelation, the “souls” of the martyrs are found under the altar, and the white robes given to them symbolize atonement (Rev. 7:14).

2. Furthermore, in Genesis 4:9-10, Abel’s blood figuratively calls out for vengeance from the ground where it was spilled by Cain. This is paralleled in Revelation where the “souls” of the martyrs (which, per Lev. 17:11, are “in the blood”) call out for vengeance. 

If we interpret Rev. 6:9-11 in light of these two Old Testament figures, then suddenly this whole exchange makes much more sense. The heavenly afterlife of martyrs is not confined to a sort of half-existence underneath a talking altar in God’s throne room - rather, the imagery of “souls” being underneath altars is a symbol of atonement, which also explains the “white robes” given to the martyrs. Furthermore, they did not literally come to life (even to cry for vengeance) at any time prior to when we are explicitly told that they came to life in Rev. 20:4 -- rather, their spilled blood, under the altar, figuratively cried out for vengeance just as the blood of Abel did (Gen. 4:9-10).

    Therefore, even this passage, when interpreted using Old Testament imagery as with the rest of the book of Revelation, does not support the view that one’s soul can exist apart from one’s body. In fact, since we are told later that “the souls of those beheaded” only “come to life” at the “first resurrection” (Rev. 20:4-6), this rather supports the idea of soul sleep, seeing as the souls of these dead believers are not alive prior to the resurrection. 

    Conclusion

In contrast to the vast body of scriptural evidence for soul sleep, as presented in the first post of this series, there are really only six passages that can be used to argue for the traditional view of the afterlife. Furthermore, all six of these passages are actually compatible with the idea of soul sleep, or even support it, when closely scrutinized in their context. Therefore, the idea of a conscious existence between death and the resurrection cannot be derived from scripture alone; rather, it is taken from Platonic philosophy and the tradition of men (Mk. 7:8), and should be rejected.

______________________________

[1] One easily understood analogy for the body, soul, and spirit is to think of the body as an appliance, the spirit as the electric current which causes the appliance to run, and the soul as the fully working appliance. Neither the appliance nor the electric current can run by themselves; it requires both together. Likewise, neither the body nor the spirit are conscious by themselves; a consciousness (or soul) only appears when both are combined together.

Defying Death: A Defense of the Doctrine of Soul Sleep (part 1 of 2)

Throughout my most recent series of posts on this blog, I have expounded and defended the doctrine of universalism, which argues that all beings will eventually be reconciled to God and saved. However, there is another doctrine which is also pivotal to a proper understanding of judgment and salvation, and this is the doctrine of soul sleep.

    Throughout most of Church history, the majority of theologians have believed that after death, one’s soul either goes to ‘heaven’ to be with Christ and God, or a place called Sheol or Hades to wait for the final judgment and the Lake of Fire (notable exceptions include the apostolic fathers, Justin Martyr, and a large number of Reformers including Martin Luther, who all believed in soul sleep). In opposition to this view is the idea of soul sleep, the belief that souls also die upon death, and consciousness only resumes at the resurrection of our bodies. Through my study of scripture, I have come to believe that the latter option, soul sleep, is the correct view. In this article, I will explain why I think that soul sleep is clearly taught in the Bible, and why the traditional Christian view cannot be derived from scripture alone.

    What is a soul, and is it immortal?

The word “soul” (nephesh in Hebrew and ψυχη in Greek) has a large range of meaning. See these lexicon entries for Hebrew and Greek to understand why I say this. It can simply mean any living being, whether animal or human (Gen. 1:20-24; 46:26; Lev. 11:46; Josh. 10:37; 1 Kings 19:4; Prov. 12:40; Acts 2:41; Rom. 13:1; 1 Pet. 3:20; Rev. 8:9; 16:3; 18:13; etc.). It can mean someone’s life; for example, when someone is killed, it is often said that their soul has been taken (Gen. 19:20; Exod. 4:19; Deut. 19:21; Judg. 18:25; 2 Sam. 4:8; 1 Kings 19:10; Prov. 7:23; Matt. 2:20; 20:28; Mk. 10:45; Jn. 10:11; 15:13; Acts 15:26; Jas. 5:20; 1 Jn. 3:16; etc.) However, “life” is not the inherent meaning of either nephesh or ψυχη, otherwise the phrase nephesh chayyah would mean “a living life” (clearly redundant), and Job 10:1 would say “my life loathes my life” (another meaningless statement).

    Another clue to the true meaning of “soul” is the fact that it is often used to describe one’s desires and wishes. For example, Abraham says, “If it is your soul that I bury my dead from before me, hear me and meet for me with Ephron son of Zoar” (Gen. 23:8). Further examples of this meaning of “soul” as the seat of emotions and desires can be found in Exod. 15:9; 23:9; Lev. 26:16; Deut. 12:15, 20; Judg. 10:16; 1 Sam. 23:20; Job 23:13; Prov. 31:6; Lk. 2:35; Jn. 10:24; 12:24; Php. 1:27; Acts 15:24; 2 Pet. 2:8; etc.

    Finally, the last meaning of the word “soul” (and more rarely used, although it still appears throughout scripture) is referring to desirable or pleasurable experiences, for example, in Matt. 6:25 where “soul” is glossed by “what you may eat and what you may drink”. Further examples from the New Testament are Matt. 10:28 (where it is used to describe the blissful experience of the Messianic kingdom); 11:29; 16:25; Lk. 12:19; Acts 20:24; Php. 2:30; Heb. 12:3; 3 Jn. 2; Rev. 12:11. Interestingly, the adjective form of “soul” in Greek (ψυχικος) describes those who are swayed by physical sensation or worldly-minded (Jas. 3:19, Jude 19).

    Although this list of definitions is certainly not all-comprehensive (indeed, there are nearly a thousand instances of “soul” in the combined Old and New Testaments), these four definitions cover virtually every instance of nephesh or ψυχη in scripture. It seems from these examples that “soul” (nephesh and ψυχη) is simply used in scripture as a figure of speech for the idea of “consciousness” (sensation, sentience, etc.), especially when connected to life itself. Contrary to the use of the word in Christian theology today, the “soul” in scripture is not something limited to human life only, but is present in animals as well - this confirms the recent scientific consensus that animals also possess consciousness (although humans clearly possess higher reasoning above animals, which is also a fact reported by scripture).

    But the important question is, is the soul (or consciousness) an immortal substance, and does it live on after death? As a matter of fact, there is zero evidence from the Bible that human souls or consciousnesses are immortal, and quite a lot of scriptural evidence against it. We are repeatedly told that it is possible to kill one’s soul (Num. 31:19; 35:11, 15, 30; Josh. 20:3, 9; Matt. 10:28; Mk. 3:4), a soul can be dead (Lev. 21:11; Num. 6:6; 19:11, 13; Josh. 2:13; Jas. 5:20; Rev. 16:3), and “the soul that sins shall die” (Ezek. 18:4, 20). Souls, or consciousnesses, are simply the emergent property of a union between a body and a spirit (Gen. 2:7), and so cease to exist when the body and spirit separate at death (Ecc. 12:7).

    The idea of the immortality of the soul, such a clearly unbiblical notion, was introduced into early Christianity by Platonic philosophy. In the earliest days of the Church, the apostolic fathers (late first century) thought of immortality as a gift bestowed by God upon the resurrection, as did the later apologists Justin Martyr and (probably) Irenaeus of Lyons. Rather than incorrectly assuming based on tradition and philosophy that every human soul is immortal, we should recognize that God is the only one who is inherently immortal (1 Tim. 6:16).

    Are we our bodies?

This may seem like a particularly inflammatory question, especially to those who have always been taught that we will remain alive after our bodies die. However, although there is definitely a duality of some sort in scripture, it is not between the soul and the body, but rather between the spirit (or “breath of life” which is given by God) and the body (Gen. 2:7; Ecc. 12:7). The soul, or consciousness, does not seem to exist apart from either a body or a spirit. And furthermore, although most Christians would be shocked to hear this, when someone dies, according to the Bible, they are represented by their (dead) body.

    This claim, although surprising to Christians today, is repeatedly substantiated throughout the Old Testament. We are told that a person’s body returns to the ground after death (Ecc. 12:7), and yet it is the person themself who returns to the ground, not merely their body (Job 10:9; Ps. 90:3; 104:29; 146:4). Likewise, to be “gathered to [one’s] people” or “return to [one’s] fathers” (which is said of almost every single Israelite and Judean king upon death) simply meant to be buried in the same place as one’s ancestors:

“Now as for you [Abraham], you shall go to your fathers in peace; you shall be buried at a good old age”... Then Abraham breathed his last and died in a good old age, an old man and full of years, and was gathered to his people. And his sons Isaac and Ishmael buried him in the cave of Machpelah, which is before Mamre, in the field of Ephron the son of Zohar the Hittite, the field which Abraham purchased from the sons of Heth. There Abraham was buried, and Sarah his wife. (Gen. 15:15, 25:8-10 NKJV)

Notice here that it is actually Abraham himself - the same person who would “go to [his] fathers” and be “gathered to his people” - who was buried, not merely his body.

Then he [Israel] charged them and said to them: “I am to be gathered to my people; bury me with my fathers in the cave that is in the field of Ephron the Hittite... There they buried Abraham and Sarah his wife, there they buried Isaac and Rebekah his wife, and there I buried Leah.” (Gen. 49:29, 31 NKJV)

Again, it is Israel himself who is to be “gathered to [his] people” and yet it is also he himself - not merely his body - who is to be buried with his fathers in the cave of Machpelah. Likewise, Isaac, Rebekah, and Leah are themselves said to be buried, not merely their bodies.

And so it was, as her [Rachel’s] soul was departing (for she died), that she called his name Ben-Oni; but his father called him Benjamin. So Rachel died and was buried on the way to Ephrath (that is, Bethlehem). And Jacob set a pillar on her grave, which is the pillar of Rachel’s grave to this day. (Gen. 35:18-20 NKJV)

This is perhaps the most important passage that demonstrates that, after death, a person is represented by their body (not a disembodied consciousness). We see here that Rachel’s soul departed from her, and then Rachel herself (not merely her body) was buried on the way to Bethlehem Ephrathah. That is, after she died, Rachel was not represented by her soul that left her body, but by her body itself.

    I could continue with many more examples of the body being the representation of a person after death, including Moses (Deut. 34:5-6), virtually every Israelite and Judean king, entire generations (Judg. 2:10), and even “all the earth” (Josh. 23:14 cf. 24:29-30), all of whom are either said to be buried or “gathered to their fathers/people”. Furthermore, this is not a truth that changed between the Old and New Testaments, because it is also said of Lazarus (Jn. 11:17) and Jesus (Jn. 19:33, 42; Acts 13:29; 1 Cor. 15:4) that they themselves were buried, not merely their bodies. However, in the interest of keeping this article relatively short, I will leave only these few examples which should suffice to demonstrate that, biblically, a person is considered the same as their body after death.

    What is Sheol/Hades?

At this point, the argument is usually made that souls go to Sheol (or its Greek equivalent, Hades) after death, and so the soul cannot merely cease to exist upon death. It is true that scripture says that souls go to Sheol or Hades after death, or more accurately, that souls can be delivered from Sheol/Hades (Ps. 16:10; 30:3; 49:15; 86:13; 88:3; 89:48; Prov. 23:14; Acts 2:27, 31). However, to say that this means that souls do not cease to exist at death misunderstands the meaning of the words Sheol and Hades. Both of these words simply mean “the unseen”, as Sheol is derived from sha’al (to ask) and Hades from α-οιδα (not-seen).

    Although these words are often translated in the KJV as “hell”, this is simply a false translation (at least based on the modern meaning of “hell”, which used to also mean “unseen” in Old English). Both the wicked and the righteous alike go down to the Unseen at death (Gen. 37:35; Job 3:11-19; Ecc. 3:20; 9:10; Jon. 2:2; Acts 2:27; 31). The Unseen can also be representative of the grave, at least in a figurative sense, as everyone who goes to the Unseen also goes to the grave. It is considered to be a place of maggots (Job 17:13-14; 24:19-20; Isa. 14:11) and a place of corruption and decay, i.e. of bodies (Ps. 16:10; 49:14; Hos. 13:14; Acts 2:27, 31), and it is said to be under the earth, that is, beneath the ground where bodies are buried, synonymous with “the pit” (Num. 16:30-33; Deut. 32:22; Job 11:8; 17:16; Ps. 30:3; Prov. 1:12; Isa. 14:15; Ezek. 31:16; Amos 9:2).

    Further evidence that going to the Unseen is simply a figurative way of describing something that ceases to exist is the usage of Hades in Matt. 11:21-23 and Lk. 10:13-15. Here we are told by Jesus that the cities of Capernaum, Chorazin, and Bethsaida will be brought down to the Unseen because the people within did not believe the miracles that He had done. These cities did not go down to “hell”, whatever that is supposed to mean, but they were completely abandoned and largely ruined during the Middle Ages; that is, they ceased to exist as cities. Thus, the fact that souls are said to go down to the Unseen in the Old and New Testaments simply means that they cease to exist as consciousnesses at death.

    The state of the dead in the Old Testament

Throughout the Old Testament, we are repeatedly told of the state of those who have died, and the nature of existence in the Unseen. Rather than being a place of conscious torment or bliss to the dead, however, the frequent message of these writers is that the dead simply have no conscious existence anymore. In fact, one of the most common terms in the Old Testament to describe those who have died is “no more” (Gen. 37:30; 42:13, 36; Job 27:19; Ps. 37:10, 36; 39:13; 104:35; Isa. 17:14; Jer. 31:15; Lam. 5:7; Ezek. 26:21; 27:36; 28:19; Matt. 2:18).

    Here are a number of specific passages that demonstrate that the dead are no longer conscious at all:

Return, O YHWH, deliver me! Oh, save me for Your mercies’ sake! For in death there is no remembrance of You; In the grave who will give You thanks? (Ps. 6:4-5 NKJV)

I cried out to You, O YHWH; And to YHWH I made supplication: “What profit is there in my blood, When I go down to the pit? Will the dust praise You? Will it declare Your truth? Hear, O YHWH, and have mercy on me; YHWH, be my helper!” (Ps. 30:8-10 NKJV)

YHWH, I have called daily upon You; I have stretched out my hands to You. Will You work wonders for the dead? Shall the dead arise and praise You? Shall Your lovingkindness be declared in the grave? Or Your faithfulness in the place of destruction? Shall Your wonders be known in the dark? And Your righteousness in the land of forgetfulness? (Ps. 88:9-12 NKJV)

In these passages, David asks YHWH to deliver him from death, saying that if he died, he would no longer be able to praise Him. David’s logic here would lose all force if it were possible for those who have died to praise God. Thus, the traditional depiction of heaven as a place in the afterlife to praise God between death and the resurrection is biblically impossible, seeing as the dead cannot praise or know God.

The dead do not praise YHWH, Nor any who go down into silence. (Ps. 115:17 NKJV)

Trust not in princes — in a son of man, For he hath no deliverance. His spirit goeth forth, he returneth to his earth, In that day have his thoughts perished. (Ps. 146:3-4)

“Indeed it was for my own peace That I had great bitterness; But You have lovingly delivered my soul from the pit of corruption, For You have cast all my sins behind Your back. For Sheol cannot thank You, Death cannot praise You; Those who go down to the pit cannot hope for Your truth. The living, the living man, he shall praise You, As I do this day; The father shall make known Your truth to the children.” (Isa. 38:17-19 NKJV)

These passages confirm that the dead cannot praise God. Furthermore, we are told that on the day someone dies, “in that day have his thoughts perished”. This makes it impossible that any person’s consciousness could live on after death.

For the living know that they will die; But the dead know nothing, And they have no more reward, For the memory of them is forgotten. Also their love, their hatred, and their envy have now perished; Nevermore will they have a share In anything done under the sun. Go, eat your bread with joy, And drink your wine with a merry heart; For God has already accepted your works. Let your garments always be white, And let your head lack no oil. Live joyfully with the wife whom you love all the days of your vain life which He has given you under the sun, all your days of vanity; for that is your portion in life, and in the labor which you perform under the sun. Whatever your hand finds to do, do it with your might; for there is no work or device or knowledge or wisdom in Sheol where you are going. (Ecc. 9:5-10 NKJV)

This is certainly the clearest passage of all as to the nature of the dead. We are told that the dead have no knowledge, no reward, no love, no hatred, no envy, no work, no device, and no wisdom; can there be any more obvious assertion that there is no conscious existence for those who have died?

    The testimony of the Hebrew scriptures as to the nature of existence for the dead, those who have gone to the Unseen, is as clear as can be. People who have died simply do not exist consciously; they are no more, with no knowledge, emotion, or ability to do anything. Souls, as much as they exist after death (if at all), only subsist in the form of unconscious ‘shades’. Therefore, the idea of soul sleep is suggested, if not demanded, by the Old Testament.

    Is our hope in the afterlife, or the resurrection?

Despite the clear testimony of the Old Testament that souls (consciousnesses) are not immortal and cease to exist at death, that a person is represented by their body, not a disembodied soul, after death, and that there is no conscious existence for those who have died, many theologians have suggested that this truth somehow changed by the time of the New Testament. They cite progressive revelation (the idea that God revealed new truths to His people at different times) as a possible reason for this. Even ignoring the fact that progressive revelation never contradicts previous revelation and only builds upon it, there is actually still nothing in the New Testament to suggest the traditional view of the immortality of the soul and the afterlife.

    As noted already, in the four gospels, when Lazarus and Jesus died, their personhood was considered to be represented by their dead bodies, not by any disembodied soul (Jn. 11:17; 19:33, 42; Acts 13:29; 1 Cor. 15:4). Furthermore, in the Greek scriptures, the nature of Hades (“the Unseen”) is still considered to be a place where things decay and/or cease to exist (Matt. 11:21-23; Lk. 10:13-15; Acts 2:27, 31), notwithstanding the parable of the rich man and Lazarus, for which see part 2 of this series. But there is an even stronger proof that the writers of the New Testament believed in soul sleep, which is their treatment of the topic of the resurrection.

    Throughout the New Testament, we see that the hope of believers for life after death rests solely on the resurrection, and not on any pre-resurrection ‘afterlife’. Here are a number of passages that demonstrate this fact:

And if Christ is preached, that out of the dead he hath risen, how say certain among you, that there is no rising again of dead persons? and if there be no rising again of dead persons, neither hath Christ risen; and if Christ hath not risen, then void [is] our preaching, and void also your faith, and we also are found false witnesses of God, because we did testify of God that He raised up the Christ, whom He did not raise if then dead persons do not rise; for if dead persons do not rise, neither hath Christ risen, and if Christ hath not risen, vain is your faith, ye are yet in your sins; then, also, those having fallen asleep in Christ did perish; if in this life we have hope in Christ only, of all men we are most to be pitied...

Seeing what shall they do who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all? why also are they baptized for the dead? why also do we stand in peril every hour? Every day do I die, by the glorying of you that I have in Christ Jesus our Lord: if after the manner of a man with wild beasts I fought in Ephesus, what [is] the advantage to me if the dead do not rise? let us eat and drink, for tomorrow we die! (1 Cor. 15:12-20, 29-32)

This passage is in the middle of Paul’s greatest treatise on the resurrection, in which he vehemently defends the doctrine of the resurrection of believers against certain Corinthians that denied it. However, his entire argument is rendered void if there is even the possibility of an afterlife prior to the resurrection. Would any Christian today say, “what is the advantage to me if the dead do not rise”? Certainly not, because with the belief in a blissful afterlife, there is infinite gain for believers even without a resurrection. The idea of bodily resurrection has been reduced from our greatest hope to merely a peripheral and inconsequential doctrine of Christianity.

For we have known that if our earthly house of the tabernacle may be thrown down, a building from God we have, an house not made with hands — age-during — in the heavens, for also in this we groan, with our dwelling that is from heaven earnestly desiring to clothe ourselves, if so be that, having clothed ourselves, we shall not be found naked, for we also who are in the tabernacle do groan, being burdened, seeing we wish not to unclothe ourselves, but to clothe ourselves, that the mortal may be swallowed up of the life. And He who did work us to this self-same thing [is] God, who also did give to us the earnest of the Spirit; having courage, then, at all times, and knowing that being at home in the body, we are away from home from the Lord — for through faith we walk, not through sight — we have courage, and are well pleased rather to be away from the home of the body, and to be at home with the Lord. (2 Cor. 5:1-8)

Surprisingly, this passage is often used as a prooftext against soul sleep when vv. 6 through 8 are taken out of context. However, when this passage is considered as a whole, it is clear that it is referring to the resurrection as our hope, not a disembodied afterlife. Paul uses much of the same language here as he does in 1 Cor. 15:51-54 to explain the resurrection, from describing this event as a “clothing” (ενδυο) to saying that, in it, mortality is swallowed up by immortality (2 Cor. 5:4 cf. 1 Cor. 15:53). Furthermore, Paul specifically says in v. 4 that he is not hoping for death (“to be unclothed”, i.e. without a body) but rather for the resurrection (“to be further clothed”, i.e. in a resurrection body).

    With this in mind, it is clear that when Paul said he was pleased to be “away from the home of the body and to be at home with the Lord”, he was talking about being away from the pre-resurrection body (his “earthly house”) and being in his resurrection body (his “dwelling that is from heaven”) together with Christ. Thus, this is another passage that demonstrates Paul’s hope for the resurrection rather than death, which is further evidence that there is no blissful afterlife prior to the resurrection.

And I do not wish you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, that ye may not sorrow, as also the rest who have not hope, for if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, so also God those asleep through Jesus he will bring with him, for this to you we say in the word of the Lord, that we who are living — who do remain over to the presence of the Lord — may not precede those asleep, because the Lord himself, in a shout, in the voice of a chief-messenger, and in the trump of God, shall come down from heaven, and the dead in Christ shall rise first, then we who are living, who are remaining over, together with them shall be caught away in clouds to meet the Lord in air, and so always with the Lord we shall be; so, then, comfort ye one another in these words. (1 Thess. 4:13-18)

Paul is here dealing with the great concern of the Thessalonian church that those who had died would not partake in the second coming of Christ. Rather than pointing out what would be the obvious if the traditional view of the afterlife were true, which is that the dead are already with Christ, Paul points to the resurrection as the hope for those who have died. Like in 1 Corinthians 15, if there were an afterlife prior to the resurrection, Paul’s entire point in this passage would be rendered void.

    Conclusion

According to the traditional Christian view of the afterlife, after death, a person’s disembodied soul either goes to ‘heaven’ to be with God and Christ if they are a believer, or to ‘hell’ where one is tortured in preparation for the Lake of Fire, if they are not a believer. However, contrary to this traditional depiction, the biblical definition of a “soul” is simply a consciousness that cannot exist apart from a body and a spirit (or “breath of life”). The only one who inherently has immortality is God, and every other soul (apart from Christ’s) is currently mortal (and will remain such until the resurrection). Furthermore, after death, a person is considered to be represented by their dead body, not a disembodied soul. The clear testimony of scripture is that the dead have no conscious existence, and that our only hope for life after death is bodily resurrection from the dead.

    This picture of death may seem bleak, and it certainly is. But however uncomfortable it may be, it is what is clearly taught in the Bible, and there is very little evidence - either scriptural or scientific - to the contrary. In fact, if death is merely a transition to a better state of existence, then it would not be considered the greatest and final enemy to be defeated (1 Cor. 15:26). Rather than looking forward to a disembodied afterlife, we should comfort one another with the biblical truth of the resurrection, as Paul tells us to (1 Thess. 4:18).

Part 2: https://thechristianuniversalist.blogspot.com/2021/12/defying-death-defense-of-doctrine-of_19.html

Pauline Universalist Prooftexts in Context

     As the saying goes, “a text without a context is a pretext for a prooftext”. Taking a biblical passage out of its original context does a great disservice to both the original writer and the reader. Unfortunately, many universalists are accused of doing exactly this when it comes to universalist prooftexts like Romans 5:18 and 1 Timothy 4:10. Because of this, I would like to show why that claim is absolutely false, and that the vast majority of universalist texts are strengthened, not weakened, by their context.

    Romans 5:18 in its context

because of this, even as through one man the sin did enter into the world, and through the sin the death; and thus to all men the death did pass through, for that all did sin; for till law sin was in the world: and sin is not reckoned when there is not law; but the death did reign from Adam till Moses, even upon those not having sinned in the likeness of Adam’s transgression, who is a type of him who is coming. But, not as the offence so also [is] the free gift; for if by the offence of the one the many did die, much more did the grace of God, and the free gift in grace of the one man Jesus Christ, abound to the many; and not as through one who did sin [is] the free gift, for the judgment indeed [is] of one to condemnation, but the gift [is] of many offences to a declaration of ‘Righteous,’ for if by the offence of the one the death did reign through the one, much more those, who the abundance of the grace and of the free gift of the righteousness are receiving, in life shall reign through the one — Jesus Christ. So, then, as through one offence to all men [it is] to condemnation, so also through one declaration of “Righteous” [it is] to all men to justification of life; for as through the disobedience of the one man, the many were constituted sinners: so also through the obedience of the one, shall the many be constituted righteous. (Rom. 5:12-19)

Paul’s main point in Romans 5, and especially in this passage, is how much greater in power and extent Christ’s righteous act was than Adam’s sin. For, as he goes on to say, “where the sin did abound, the grace did overabound” (Rom. 5:20). As should be obvious, rather than limiting the “all men” who receive justification of life, the surrounding parallelisms actually strengthen the conclusion that, indeed, all of humanity has received justification. The same amount who, by Adam’s sin, died (vv. 15), were condemned (vv. 16, 18), and were made sinners (v. 19), by Christ’s righteous act have received abundant grace (vv. 15), been declared righteous (vv. 16, 19), and been justified (v. 18). Because the first category includes all people, the second category does as well, through parallelism.

    This interpretation is sometimes contested on the grounds that verse 17 contradicts it by limiting the number of those justified to “those who... are receiving the free gift of righteousness”. However, there is nothing in this verse to suggest that the number of those who are receiving righteousness is any less than all people; to suggest this is to read one’s own preconceptions into the text. Nothing in the context limits “the many” and “all men” who are justified to anything less than “the many” and “all men” who are affected by Adam’s sin, which is all of humanity without exception. To suggest that not all people will be justified is to say that not all people are sinners and affected by mortality, which goes against both scripture and common sense (and comes dangerously close to the ancient heresy of Pelagianism).

    1 Corinthians 15:20-28 in its context

This passage has already been dealt with in detail, in a previous extensive exegesis of mine which demonstrates that the salvation of all is clearly in view within this passage. In fact, this is likely the strongest evidence for Pauline universalism, as it emphatically refutes both infernalism and annihilationism, while upholding universalism.

    2 Corinthians 5:14 in its context

for the love of the Christ doth constrain us, having judged thus: that if one for all died, then the whole died, and for all he died, that those living, no more to themselves may live, but to him who died for them, and was raised again. So that we henceforth have known no one according to the flesh, and even if we have known Christ according to the flesh, yet now we know him no more; so that if any one [is] in Christ — [he is] a new creature; the old things did pass away, lo, become new have the all things. And the all things [are] of God, who reconciled us to Himself through Jesus Christ, and did give to us the ministration of the reconciliation, how that God was in Christ — a world reconciling to Himself, not reckoning to them their trespasses; and having put in us the word of the reconciliation (2 Cor. 5:14-19)

A superficial reading of v. 14, bolded above, seems to demonstrate that all people have died [to sin] in Christ, and so are already justified (Rom. 6:5-7). This also makes sense of Rom. 6:11, in which Paul does not say that we ourselves must die to sin, but that we merely need to recognize that we are already dead to sin. However, many non-universalists (especially Calvinists) argue that v. 15 limits the scope of the “all” in v. 14 only to those who are living for Christ, that is, believers.

    However, this is not actually what Paul says in this verse. In v. 15, the verb “to live” is in the subjunctive mood, which describes an ideal situation rather than an actual situation. Paul’s point here is that because Christ died for all people, all people should live for Christ; however, he recognizes that this is unfortunately not the case. Indeed, the fact that this verb is in the subjunctive mood demonstrates that there must be at least some of those for whom Christ died that are not living for Christ, which increases the scope of the “all” in v. 14 (those for whom Christ died) beyond just believers.

    In a similar manner, the contrast between v. 19 and v. 20 also demonstrates an ideal vs. an actual situation. Verse 19 states that Christ has conciliated the cosmos to Himself (albeit proleptically, as this has not been fully realized yet; Rom. 8:21 cf. Col. 1:20), whereas verse 20 exhorts believers to beseech others to be conciliated to God, in anticipation of that ideal state when all things will indeed be reconciled. Furthermore, we are told that Christ is “not reckoning to them their trespasses”, and yet he has “put in us the word of the conciliation” - the first group is clearly distinguished from the second group (believers), which means that God is not reckoning unbelievers’ trespasses either. Therefore, these universalist prooftexts from this passage (both vv. 14 and 19) are absolutely unqualified by their contexts.

    Philippians 2:10-11 in context

For, let this mind be in you that [is] also in Christ Jesus, who, being in the form of God, thought [it] not robbery to be equal to God, but did empty himself, the form of a servant having taken, in the likeness of men having been made, and in fashion having been found as a man, he humbled himself, having become obedient unto death — death even of a cross, wherefore, also, God did highly exalt him, and gave to him a name that [is] above every name, that in the name of Jesus every knee may bow — of heavenlies, and earthlies, and what are under the earth — and every tongue may confess that Jesus Christ [is] Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (Php. 2:5-11)

The scope of this passage is not limited by the context, and the majority of non-universalists recognize that this indeed refers to all people. It is sometimes argued that Php. 1:28 and 3:19, which describe the destruction of those who are opposed to the truth, limit the scope of those who will voluntarily worship Christ; however, no scriptural universalist argues that God will not judge and condemn, instead, it is believed that everyone will again turn to Him after their condemnation. Because whoever confesses the Lord Jesus and believes that He has been raised from the dead will be saved (Rom. 10:9-10), if all people meet these conditions, then all will be saved.

    There are two primary non-universalist objections to this reading of the passage. First, some object that the verbs “to bow” and “to confess” are in the subjunctive mood (see above), and so represent an ideal situation rather than an actual situation. This is true, but it ignores that this passage is actually a quotation of an Old Testament passage (Isa. 45:23), where these verbs are in the indicative mood in the LXX. In fact, in the original context, the statement “every knee will bow to me and every tongue will confess to God” is a decree of YHWH himself; God Himself will make sure that this event comes to pass. Why, then, did Paul purposely misquote and reapply this Old Testament passage? His point was most likely that, because Christ has been exalted so highly, all people should bow to and worship Him, and so God will cause this to come to pass (per Isa. 45:23).

    The second objection is that the ‘subjection of all things to Christ’ which is in view here is not voluntary, but a forced recognition of Jesus’ lordship over all. However, this goes against Isa. 29:13-14, which states that YHWH hates those who worship Him with their lips, though their hearts are far removed from Him; God would not allow all unbelievers to falsely worship Him in this way. Similarly, the immediate context of the Old Testament passage which Paul quotes in Php. 2:10-11 states that the people will say, “Only in YHWH do I have righteousness and strength” (Isa. 45:24). Does this sound like the cry of someone who is being condemned and trodden down upon by God, or someone who is being uplifted and saved?

    Similarly, elsewhere in the Pauline epistles, the theme of Christ’s subjection of all things is connected to reconciliation, not judgment. 1 Cor. 15:27 describes the subjection of all in the context of the final resurrection and universal salvation, while Eph. 1:22 connects the subjection of all under Christ’s feet to the same subjection by which He is head of the Church, namely, reconciliation. Therefore, all three of the non-universalist counter-readings of Php. 2:10-11 fail upon further examination of the context, leaving only the universalist interpretation.

    Colossians 1:20 in its context

Giving thanks to the Father who did make us meet for the participation of the inheritance of the saints in the light, who did rescue us out of the authority of the darkness, and did translate [us] into the reign of the Son of His love, in whom we have the redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of the sins, who is the image of the invisible God, first-born of all creation, because in him were the all things created, those in the heavens, and those upon the earth, those visible, and those invisible, whether thrones, whether lordships, whether principalities, whether authorities; all things through him, and for him, have been created, and himself is before all, and the all things in him have consisted. And himself is the head of the body — the assembly — who is a beginning, a first-born out of the dead, that he might become in all [things] — himself — first, because in him it did please all the fulness to tabernacle, and through him to reconcile the all things to himself — having made peace through the blood of his cross — through him, whether the things upon the earth, whether the things in the heavens. (Col. 1:12-20)

Non-universalists usually take two routes to argue that this passage does not teach universalism: first, they often argue that the “all” in v. 20 is not all-encompassing and does not include unbelievers, and second, they often argue that “reconcile” in v. 20 can also mean to merely ‘subjugate’. This first argument, that the “all things” does not include unbelievers, is shown to be false by the context where this “all” is clearly defined. It is defined as all of those things which have been created through and for Christ, and over which He is preeminent; all things both in the heavens and upon the earth. To argue that the “all things” which will be reconciled to Christ does not include unbelievers is to say that He is not truly Lord over unbelievers. This is clearly not a sustainable position, as Jesus says, “Given to me was all authority in heaven and on earth“ (Matt. 28:18).

    The other option for non-universalists, to argue that the word “reconcile” can include the meaning ‘to subjugate’, is absolutely false. Paul uses this word (καταλασσω or αποκαταλασσω in Greek) to mean the common definition of ‘reconcile’, to be transferred from a state of enmity to a state of friendship, every time that he uses it.

for if, being enemies, we have been reconciled to God through the death of His Son, much more, having been reconciled, we shall be saved in his life. (Rom. 5:10)
 
but and if she may separate, let her remain unmarried, or to the husband let her be reconciled, and let not a husband send away a wife. (1 Cor. 7:11)

and might reconcile both in one body to God through the cross, having slain the enmity in it (Eph. 2:16)

See also 2 Cor. 5:18-20, quoted above. Clearly, Paul did not consider this word to mean mere subjugation, but instead to come to a state of friendship. Furthermore, the immediate context of Col. 1:20 glosses ‘reconcile’ as “to make peace through the blood of His cross” - this cannot be understood as mere subjugation, by any means. As Paul goes on to say, we ourselves (as the Church) have been reconciled to “present [ourselves] holy and unblemished and blameless”, just as all things will eventually be reconciled; are we merely subjugated to Christ? Obviously not. Therefore, both non-universalist counter-readings of this verse are clearly refuted by the context.

    As an analogy, imagine that someone is telling you about what they and four friends did today. They say, “We all went to the supermarket, and then we all went out to lunch, and then we all came home.” No reasonable person could conclude from that statement that only one of them actually came home, or that ‘to come home’ actually means ‘to stay away from home’. In the same way, when Paul says that “Christ is the firstborn [most preeminent] of all things, and all things were made through Him and for Him, and He will reconcile all things”, no one can reasonably conclude that the final “all things” is actually only one-tenth or less of the first “all things”, or that ‘to reconcile’ means ‘to not reconcile’.

    1 Thessalonians 5:10 in context

so, then, we may not sleep as also the others, but watch and be sober, for those sleeping, by night do sleep, and those making themselves drunk, by night are drunken, and we, being of the day — let us be sober, putting on a breastplate of faith and love, and an helmet — a hope of salvation, because God did not appoint us to anger, but to the acquiring of salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ, who did die for us, that whether we wake — whether we sleep — together with him we may live; wherefore, comfort ye one another, and build ye up, one the one, as also ye do. (1 Thess. 5:6-11)

This is one of the few passages that explicitly recognizes that unbelievers will both be judged and, eventually, be reconciled and saved as well. At the start of this chapter in vv. 1 - 5, Paul begins by describing the Day of the Lord in which unbelievers (sons of the night and darkness) will be destroyed and shall not escape, contrasted with believers (sons of light and the day). He then goes on to further contrast unbelievers, who are ‘sleeping’ and thereby unaware of Christ’s advent, and believers, who are ‘awake’ in the day and thereby aware of and preparing for Christ’s coming. And yet, Paul says, “whether we wake [or] whether we sleep, together with Him we may live” (1 Thess. 5:10), a clear statement that both believers and unbelievers will be reconciled to Christ.

    A common non-universalist objection to this reading is that it could be referring to “those who have fallen asleep”, that is, dead believers (1 Thess. 4:13), which would mean that Paul did not have the reconciliation of unbelievers in mind here. However, a different Greek word is used to describe dead believers (κοιμαομαι) versus unbelievers (καθευδω), and the word used to describe unbelievers is the one that appears here. Therefore, it is absolutely clear that Paul is saying that those who are of night and sleep, upon whom destruction will come (unbelievers), will also be reconciled to live together with Christ.

    1 Timothy 2:4-6 in context

I exhort, then, first of all, there be made supplications, prayers, intercessions, thanksgivings, for all men: for kings, and all who are in authority, that a quiet and peaceable life we may lead in all piety and gravity, for this [is] right and acceptable before God our Saviour, who doth will all men to be saved, and to come to the full knowledge of the truth; for one [is] God, one also [is] mediator of God and of men, the man Christ Jesus, who did give himself a ransom for all — the testimony in its own times — in regard to which I was set a preacher and apostle — truth I say in Christ, I do not lie — a teacher of nations, in faith and truth. (1 Tim. 2:1-7)

These verses are interpreted differently by Calvinists, Arminians, and universalists. The Calvinist interpretation argues that the “all” here, whom God wills to be saved and for whom Christ died as a ransom, only includes believers and no others. However, the context clearly refutes this view, as Paul states in v. 2 that those for whom we should pray includes “kings and all who are in authority” - this epistle was written when Nero, a pagan and infamous persecutor of Christians, was emperor of Rome. If Paul was including even Nero in those whom God wills to be saved and for whom Christ died a ransom, then clearly it does not only include believers.

    The Arminian view of this passage argues that, yes, God does will all to be saved and Christ died as a ransom for all people, but this ransom does not truly affect you unless you make the correct choice to believe in this life only. However, this goes against the clear teaching of scripture that Christ’s sacrifice was both sufficient and efficacious for every person whom He died for. We are told in Col. 2:13-14 that those for whom Christ died have been fully forgiven all their trespasses, and every single ordinance against us has been taken away; in 2 Cor. 5:21 and Gal. 3:13, that Christ became sin and a curse in order to free us from sin and the curse of the Law; and furthermore, the very word ‘ransom’ in 1 Tim. 2:6, αντιλυτρον, literally means ‘in-place-of [αντι] ransom-price [λυτρον]’, which implies that the debt of sin has already been paid through Christ for all.

    The final interpretation is the universalist reading, which argues that both all people (regardless of current belief or unbelief) are in view in this passage and that God’s will and Christ’s sacrifice are fully efficacious. This is the only reading which stands up to scrutiny when these verses are examined in context.

    1 Timothy 4:10 in context

These things placing before the brethren, thou shalt be a good ministrant of Jesus Christ, being nourished by the words of the faith, and of the good teaching, which thou didst follow after, and the profane and old women’s fables reject thou, and exercise thyself unto piety, for the bodily exercise is unto little profit, and the piety is to all things profitable, a promise having of the life that now is, and of that which is coming; stedfast [is] the word, and of all acceptation worthy: for for this we both labour and are reproached, because we hope on the living God, who is Saviour of all men — especially of those believing. Charge these things, and teach (1 Tim. 4:6-11)

This is one of the few universalist passages where it cannot be argued that the “all men” refers to only believers (although in the other passages, it is usually ruled out by the context; see above), as “those believing” are explicitly a subset (“especially”) of those for whom God is Savior. There are only two possible arguments for non-universalists to make: first, that “Savior” may merely mean ‘helper’ and not literally ‘savior’, and second, that “especially” really means ‘exclusively’. The first objection can be easily refuted, because every single time that the word ‘savior’ (σωτηρ) is used in the New Testament (out of 24 times), it is used in the literal sense of the word, that is, someone who brings about salvation.

    The second objection is also just as easily refuted, as the word ‘especially’ (μαλιστα) is never used in Paul’s epistles to mean ‘exclusively’, but always in the usual sense of the word ‘especially’. In Galatians 6:10, he says that we should work good towards all people, but especially towards believers; in Philippians 4:22, “greet all the saints, especially those in Caesar’s household”; in 1 Timothy 5:17, the elders are to be counted worthy of double honor, especially those who strive in the scriptures; and in 2 Timothy 4:13, Paul wants Timothy to bring him his cloak along with the books, especially the parchments; in Titus 1:10, there are many empty talkers, especially those of the circumcision.

    Universalists agree that believers will obtain a special salvation above that of unbelievers, called ‘age-during life’ in the New Testament (which essentially amounts to an early salvation and the privilege of living in the kingdom of God); but this does not change the fact that God is still Savior of all men, especially (not exclusively) of believers. Therefore, this verse is not weakened by the context, but proves that God truly will save all people, regardless of their current belief in Him.

    Titus 2:11 in context

For the saving grace of God was manifested to all men, teaching us, that denying the impiety and the worldly desires, soberly and righteously and piously we may live in the present age, waiting for the blessed hope and manifestation of the glory of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ, who did give himself for us, that he might ransom us from all lawlessness, and might purify to himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works; these things be speaking, and exhorting, and convicting, with all charge; let no one despise thee! (Titus 2:11-15)

Like the other passages considered above, the main non-universalist counter-reading of this passage is an argument that “all men” does not actually refer to every single human without exception, but rather only to believers. This is primarily based on the statement in v. 12 that those for whom the grace of God was manifested live piously in the present age and deny worldly desires. However, like in 2 Cor. 5:14-19, the verb “to live” is in the subjunctive mood, which describes an ideal situation; because the grace of God appeared to all men, all people should live piously and anticipate the appearance of Jesus Christ, but unfortunately this is not the case.

    In fact, the very fact that some people for whom the grace of God appeared are not denying impiety and living righteously (because it is an ideal, not an actual situation) demonstrates that the “all men” in v. 11 cannot refer to merely believers, but includes at least some unbelievers as well. Therefore, the universalist reading is not weakened but strengthened by the immediate context.

    Conclusion

There are a large number of passages in Paul’s epistles which suggest that he believed in universalism. Taken together, these demonstrate that all people without exception have been justified, conciliated, and (in God’s eyes) made righteous, and that all people will eventually be resurrected to immortality and reconciled to God. The context of each of these passages demonstrates that they cannot be simply referring to believers, but truly to all of humanity; all non-universalist counter-readings of these passages fail to stand up to scrutiny. We can be absolutely certain that Paul was a full universalist and preached universal salvation.

1 Corinthians 15:20-28 as a Universalist Prooftext

    Throughout history, many universalists (both past and present) have used 1 Corinthians 15:20-28 as a prooftext for the eventual salvation of all. Even as early as Ignatius of Antioch in the early second century, we see the “destruction of death”, per 1 Cor. 15:26, as a precursor to the Origenian universal apokatastasis (Ep. ad Eph. 19). For this reason, I would like to take the time to exegete this passage in its context and demonstrate exactly why it is such a powerful prooftext for universal salvation, and how it refutes both infernalism and conditionalism.

    The Context

This passage is set in the context of 1 Cor. 15, a chapter regarding Paul’s gospel, the resurrection, and to a lesser extent eschatology, as well as the larger context of the epistle to the Corinthians as a whole. 1 Corinthians (actually Paul’s second letter to Corinth) was written near the middle of Paul’s ministry, in circa 53 - 54. This epistle was written to correct many doctrinal and moral problems in the Corinthian church.

    The beginning of the epistle, in the first three chapters, deals with disputes in the church over whether different leaders should be followed, whether Paul, Apollos, Peter, or Christ Himself. Paul explains that no church leader should be followed apart from Christ, because it is Christ and His crucifixion that is the foundation of their faith, although foolishness to the world. Although Paul and Apollos helped to found and build up the church at Corinth, no one can build on a foundation apart from Jesus Christ, and all works that are done apart from Him will be burned up. He concludes this section by saying, “let no one glory in men, for all things are yours... and you [are] Christ’s, and Christ [is] God’s” (1 Cor. 3:20, 23).

    After a short excursus on the purpose of ministers (primarily stewards and teachers, not leaders), chapters five through ten deal with issues of morality in the Corinthian church. Sexual immorality, including adultery and temple prostitution (which in Paul’s eyes is equivalent to idolatry; 1 Cor. 6:15-20), have grown rampant, and Paul writes to them to correct this. Eating food sacrificed to idols is acceptable, but could cause to stumble the brethren who still think it is sinful (1 Cor. 8:9-13). Although we have been freed and justified from sin, and so theoretically all things are acceptable to us, we must be careful to seek the profit of others and “become offenseless” (1 Cor. 10:31-33).

    After another excursus in chapter eleven regarding church traditions on gender roles and communion, Paul continues on to talk about spiritual gifts. He says that though there may be diversity of gifts in the church, there is still one Body of Christ, and the many members of that Body must work in union. This leads into a segue about love, for Paul believes that αγαπη love will allow the church to remain unified through diversity. Finally, in chapter fourteen, the gifts of tongues and prophesy are compared, and Paul concludes that although prophesy is more advantageous than speaking in tongues, both spiritual gifts are good and not to be forbidden if “done decently and in order” (1 Cor. 14:40).

    Finally, we have reached chapter 15, the immediate context of the passage at hand. After discussing the many political, moral, and spiritual divisions within the Corinthian church, Paul turns to the two things that unite the entire Church: the gospel under which they have been saved, and the hope of the resurrection. “Now I am making known to you, brothers, the good news that I proclaimed to you... and by which you are being saved... that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He was raised the third day according to the scriptures” (1 Cor. 15:1-4).

    After describing his gospel, Paul attacks a dangerous heresy that has arisen in the church: a denial, not only of the general resurrection, but of the resurrection of Christ Himself. However, as he says, if Christ is not risen, then our faith is absolutely futile, for we are still in our sins (1 Cor. 15:17). Moreover, if Christ is not risen, then there will be no resurrection of His Church either; those who have died have truly perished! It’s at this point that Paul enters a brief aside on the ultimate conclusion of history connected to the resurrection, and the final state at the eschaton (1 Cor. 15:20-28; the passage in question).

    After this, Paul returns to the topic at hand, the denial of the resurrection. If there is no resurrection, he says, then there is no point in risking death every day as he does, for there is no profit after death. He then addresses the question of what body those who are raised will have. To answer this, he explains that we will be raised in a ‘heavenly’ and ‘spiritual’ body, just as Christ was. When we are raised at the last trumpet, we will be made imperishable and immortal, no longer held captive to death, sin, or the law (1 Cor. 15:50-56). He finally ends the chapter with an exhortation to the Corinthians to remain steadfast in their work for the Lord.

    The structure of 1 Corinthians 15 appears to be chiastic in nature, like so:

A: Hold fast in the good news which Paul evangelized to the church (vv. 1 - 11)

B: The truth of the resurrection of Christ (vv. 12 - 17)

C: If there is no resurrection, then there is no hope (vv. 18 - 19)

D: Resurrection and the eschaton (vv. 20 - 28)

C’: If there is no resurrection, then there is no point in living righteously (vv. 29 - 34)

B’: The truth of the resurrection of the Body of Christ (vv. 35 - 57)

A’: Remain steadfast and immovable in the work of the Lord (v. 58)

    This chiastic structure places the emphasis of 1 Corinthians 15 on the central passage, which is verses 20 through 28, the main subject of this article. Thus, whatever point Paul was trying to get across about the resurrection in this chapter, verses 20 through 28 are an absolutely integral part of that message. Interestingly, there seems to be a much smaller-scale chiasmus in 1 Cor. 15:24-28 as well:

“Then the end:”

A: “when He shall hand over the kingdom to the God and Father”

B: “when He shall have abolished all dominion and all authority and power”

C: “For it befits Him to reign until He shall have put all the enemies under His feet”

D: “The last enemy being abolished is death”

C: “For He has subjected all things under His feet”

B: “Now when it may be said that all things have been subjected, it is evident that the One having subjected all things to Him is excepted”

A: “Now when all things shall have been subjected under Him, then also the Son Himself shall be subjected to the One having subjected all things to Him, so that God may be the all things in all”

    Thus, it seems likely that the main point of the passage is the ultimate abolition of death, which connects to the overarching theme of resurrection throughout this chapter. We will now move on to exegesis of the passage itself.

    Exegesis of 1 Cor. 15:20-28

Νυνὶ δὲ Χριστὸς ἐγήγερται ἐκ νεκρῶν ἀπαρχὴ τῶν κεκοιμημένων

verse 20: “Yet now Christ has been raised out of the dead, a firstfruit of the ones having fallen asleep.”

This verse is fairly straightforward, a proclamation of the truth of Christ’s resurrection, which continues Paul’s train of thought in verses 12 through 17 regarding the reality of this Resurrection. The fact that Christ is merely a “firstfruit” or the ‘beginning’ of ones having fallen asleep demonstrates that others will also be resurrected to immortality in the future, which is the main focus of the rest of chapter 15.

ἐπειδὴ γὰρ δι’ ἀνθρώπου θάνατος, καὶ δι’ ἀνθρώπου ἀνάστασις νεκρῶν

verse 21: “For whereas death [was] through a man, also through a man [was] resurrection of the dead.”

This parallel between the sin of Adam, which brought death, and the righteous act of Jesus Christ, which brought life and resurrection from the dead, reiterates Paul’s parallelism between Adam and Christ in Romans 5:12-19 (written around the same time as this). Although the full significance of this parallelism is not explored until later in this passage, in Paul’s estimation, Adam’s sin (which brought death to all men) cannot have been greater in effect than Christ’s righteous sacrifice, and so through Christ not only all men but the whole creation will be restored (Rom. 8:21, Col. 1:20).

ὥσπερ γὰρ ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ πάντες ἀποθνῄσκουσιν, οὕτως καὶ ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες                   ζῳοποιηθήσονται.

verse 22: “For just as in Adam all are dying, so also in Christ, all will be made alive.”

There are four separate interpretations of this particular verse.

    The first interpretation is a typical infernalist reading, which argues that this verse refers to the general resurrection by which all will be made immortal, and then the unbelievers will be cast into the Lake of Fire to be tormented (Rev. 20:11-15). This interpretation deals with the problem that the vivification spoken of in this passage is specifically related to the reconciling work of Christ, as in the previous verse. According to infernalism, if Christ had not died on the cross, all people would have risen in the general resurrection regardless and been cast into the Lake of Fire as punishment for their sins. Therefore, this interpretation fails based on the immediate context of the verse.

    The second interpretation is an annihilationist reading which is a slight variation on the first. According to this interpretation, the verse also refers to the general resurrection; however, unbelievers will not be made immortal, and will be cast into the Lake of Fire to be annihilated. This has the same problem, that the immediate context of the verse relates this vivification to Christ’s righteous act on the cross, and yet annihilationists argue that the general resurrection of unbelievers would have occurred regardless of Christ’s crucifixion. 

    The third interpretation is common among all non-universalists, including conditionalists. This interpretation argues that Adam and Christ are to be regarded as ‘federal heads’ of the groups which they affect: that is, those who are “in Adam”, which includes all mankind, are dying, but only those “in Christ”, which includes all believers, will be made alive through His reconciling work. This is a much stronger interpretation than the first two, but suffers from the issue that it would require shifting around the original word order of this verse. Paul was clear when he said that “in Christ, all will be made alive” rather than saying that “all in Christ will be made alive”, as he did in 1 Thess. 4:17 to describe the resurrection of believers specifically at Christ’s second coming. It is also untenable in light of verse 26, as described below.

    The fourth and only remaining interpretation is the universalist interpretation, which argues that Paul uses the parallelism between Adam and Christ to describe the scope of the resurrection in question (all of humanity), and relates it to Christ’s righteous act on the cross to describe the quality of the resurrection in question (for reconciliation rather than punishment). This is the only interpretation which stands up to scrutiny when compared to both the original wording and context of 1 Corinthians 15:22.

ἕκαστος δὲ ἐν τῷ ἰδίῳ τάγματι: ἀπαρχὴ Χριστός, ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσία αὐτοῦ

verse 23: “Yet each in their own order: Christ a firstfruit, then those of Christ in His presence,”

This verse begins to expound upon the order of the resurrection of all mankind (see above). The first group to be resurrected is Christ Himself, as described in verse 20, where he is said to be “a firstfruit of the ones having fallen asleep [died]”. The second group includes all those of Christ, or all believers, who will be resurrected “in His presence” as described by Paul in 1 Thess. 4:13-18 (which was written earlier in his ministry).

εἶτα τὸ τέλος ὅταν παραδιδῷ τὴν βασιλείαν τῷ θεῷ καὶ πατρί ὅταν καταργήσῃ πᾶσαν ἀρχὴν καὶ πᾶσαν ἐξουσίαν καὶ δύναμιν

verse 24: “then the end: when He shall hand over the kingdom to the God and Father, when He shall have abolished all dominion and all authority and power.”

The “end”, or τελος, which Paul refers to at the beginning of this verse could refer to two separate things. For one, it may refer to the “end” of the resurrections, as τελος often refers to a closure or a fulfillment. This is the most straightforward reading, as there is necessarily a third group (unbelievers) to be resurrected alongside Christ and believers, per verse 22, and would complete the list of those resurrected: “Christ a firstfruit, then those of Christ in His presence, then the end”. In this interpretation, the chiasmus of verses 24 through 28 describes the timing of this final resurrection, just as “in His presence” describes the timing of the resurrection of believers.

    On the other hand, it is also possible that the τελος refers to the literal end, either the consummation of Christ’s kingdom or the consummation of the ages, at which time Christ’s redemptive work will be fully manifested (Heb. 9:26). However, the problem with this interpretation is that this would leave at least one group (unbelievers) unresurrected according to the list in verses 23 - 24, whereas verses 22 and 26 require that all of humanity is resurrected. Instead, it’s likely that Paul was using a play on words in this verse: the third group resurrected is not only the τελος of the resurrection, but is resurrected at the τελος of the ages as well.

    Christ’s handing over of His kingdom to the Father is paralleled in verse 28 (via chiasmus) with Christ’s own subjection to God. This has sometimes been construed as contradictory to Luke 1:33, which states that “of His kingdom there will be no end”. However, just because Christ’s actual reign over the kingdom of God will eventually end does not mean that the kingdom itself will ever end. As an analogy, imagine a viceroy who, after ruling his satrapy for decades, steps down and allows his king to take his place; just because the viceroy is no longer ruling does not mean that the satrapy itself has ended, it merely exists in a different form and under a different rulership. In the same way, Christ and His kingdom will eventually be subjected to the Father, but this does not mean that the kingdom will cease to exist.

δεῖ γὰρ αὐτὸν βασιλεύειν ἄχρι οὗ θῇ πάντας τοὺς ἐχθροὺς ὑπὸ τοὺς πόδας αὐτοῦ

verse 25: “For it befits Him to reign until He shall have put all the enemies under His feet.”

This statement that all enemies will be subjected under Christ’s feet is again repeated in verse 27. The significance of this, however, and its relation to the resurrection is only explained in the next verse:

ἔσχατος ἐχθρὸς καταργεῖται ὁ θάνατος

verse 26: “The last enemy being abolished is death.”

Based on the chiastic structure of verses 24 through 28, and the larger chiasmus enveloping the entire chapter, this is the most significant verse of 1 Corinthians 15 and lies at the heart of Paul’s point throughout his treatise on resurrection. For if death itself will eventually be abolished, this means that not only will all of humanity be resurrected, but will be resurrected to immortality (as when death, θανατος, is abolished, everything that is left will be αθανατος, immortal). This absolutely refutes annihilationism and conditionalism, the views that believers alone will eventually have immortality, and shows that the idea that only the resurrection of believers is in view in verse 22 is false (the third interpretation above).

    Furthermore, if death itself is to be abolished, then the Lake of Fire, which is called “the second death” (Rev. 20:14; 21:8), will also be emptied. This does not refute the infernalist interpretation of the Lake of Fire, which sees it as a place of torment rather than literal death, but does show that the annihilationist view of the Lake of Fire, if true, cannot be eternal.

    There may also be a more allegorical interpretation of the abolition of death. As Paul goes on to say, “Where, O death, is your sting? where, O Hades, your victory? and the sting of death is sin, and the power of sin, the law” (1 Cor. 15:55-56). This suggests that sin and law will be abolished along with death at the final resurrection. In this case, the infernalist idea that the majority of humanity will eternally remain in separation from and in open rebellion against God is entirely impossible (if it was ever feasible in the first place). Moreover, if it is true that “sin is not imputed when there is not law” (Rom. 5:13), then once sin and the law are done away with at the final resurrection, there can be no more condemnation nor a need for wrath (Rom. 4:15).

πάντα γὰρ ὑπέταξεν ὑπὸ τοὺς πόδας αὐτοῦ ὅταν δὲ εἴπῃ ὅτι πάντα ὑποτέτακται δῆλον ὅτι ἐκτὸς τοῦ ὑποτάξαντος αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα

verse 27: “For He has subjected all things under His feet. Now when it may be said that all things have been subjected, it is evident that the One having subjected all things to Him is excepted.”

Christ’s subjection of all things, as described in verses 25 and 27, is also paralleled elsewhere in Pauline literature, especially Philippians 2:9-11 and 3:21. In these contexts, it is not presented as a subjection of wrath or judgment, but a subjection of reconciliation. Php. 2:9-11 visualizes the subjection under Christ as a time when all people will bow and acknowledge Him as Lord, whereas Php. 3:21 explicitly connects this time to the resurrection, when “our body of humiliation” will be transformed into “the body of His glory”.

    Similarly, the passage of Ephesians 1:21-23 connects the putting of all things under Christ’s feet with the same subjection by which He is the head of the Church, i.e., via reconciliation. It is certain that Paul had the same subjection in mind here as he does in 1 Cor. 15:24-28. Not only does he explicitly remark “all things He put under His feet”, which is an almost identical statement to verse 25, but also describes Christ’s subjection of “all principality, and authority, and might, and lordship” in parallel with verse 24, and goes on to say how God is “filling all things in all”, in parallel with verse 28.

    Furthermore, the subjection of all things to Christ is paralleled in v. 28 with the subjection of Christ to God. Unless we are to believe that Christ will be subjected to God “at the end of a sword”, the subjection of all things to Christ must also be a willing subjection, one of reconciliation rather than judgment.

    This idea of ‘subjection as salvation’, in relation to 1 Cor. 15:27-28, was first introduced by Origen of Alexandria in the third century. He argued this by comparison with Psalms 62:1 (LXX), where David writes, “Will not my soul be subjected to God? For from Him is my salvation.” Although it is certainly a stretch to interpret Paul’s words through a psalm, Paul definitely connects subjection to Christ with reconciliation throughout his epistles, and so it is reasonable to believe that Paul is referring to the reconciliation of all people when he speaks of the ‘subjection of all things’.

ὅταν δὲ ὑποταγῇ αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα, τότε καὶ αὐτὸς ὁ υἱὸς ὑποταγήσεται τῷ ὑποτάξαντι αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα, ἵνα ᾖ ὁ θεὸς τὰ πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν.

verse 28: “Now when all things shall have been subjected under Him, then also the Son Himself shall be subjected to the One having subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all things in all”

Based on the chiastic structure of 1 Cor. 15:24-28, this verse is paralleled with Christ’s return of the kingdom to the God and Father. Because of Christ’s eventual subjection under God, this verse is sometimes given a subordinationistic interpretation. Origen sidestepped this issue by interpreting subjection as salvation (see above), by which he suggested that Christ was not becoming ‘lesser’ than God, but merely subsumed within God Himself. This is a possible interpretation, but ultimately not inherent to the text, in my opinion. However, since doctrines of the Trinity are not the main focus of this article, I will put off the issue for now.

    Another important point within this verse is that God will be “all things in all” (this motif is repeated in Eph. 1:23, as noted above). The significance of this is that God will not only be all things after the final resurrection, but He will be in all things. This absolutely refutes infernalism, since if God will truly be in all things, it is impossible that any person or any part of creation could remain eternally separated from Him, outside of His salvific influence. As Origen said in the third century:

So, again, nothing that is wicked must be supposed to attain to that end, lest, while God is said to be “in all things”, He may also be said to be in a vessel of wickedness. For if we now assert that God is everywhere and in all things, on the ground that nothing can be empty of God, we nevertheless do not say that He is now all things in those in whom He is. And hence we must look more carefully as to what that is which denotes the perfection of blessedness and the end of things, which is not only said to be God in all things, but also “all in all”. Let us then inquire what all those things are which God is to become in all. I am of opinion that the expression, by which God is said to be “all in all”, means that He is all in each individual person. Now He will be all in each individual in this way: when all which any rational understanding, cleansed from the dregs of every sort of vice, and with every cloud of wickedness completely swept away, can either feel, or understand, or think, will be wholly God; and when it will no longer behold or retain anything else than God, but when God will be the measure and standard of all its movements; and thus God will be all, for there will no longer be any distinction of good and evil, seeing evil nowhere exists; for God is all things, and to Him no evil is near… so that when all feeling of wickedness has been removed, and the individual has been purified and cleansed, He who alone is the one good God becomes to him all, and that not in the case of a few individuals, or of a considerable number, but He Himself is “all in all”. (De Principiis 3.6.2-3)

The reasoning here is clear. Since God will be in all things, not just a minority of people (believers), but all people, and it is impossible for God to dwell within anything that is wicked or evil, there will be no wickedness, evil, or rebellion after the final resurrection. All people will be in God, and God in them, in full communion. Although this does not disprove annihilationism, because if the unbelievers are annihilated it is possible for God to be in all things without being in them, it definitely shows that no part of creation will end up separated from God after the final resurrection. Thus, verse 28 demonstrates beyond a doubt that infernalism is false.

Conclusion

1 Corinthians 15:20-28 remains one of the strongest prooftexts in the Bible for universalism. This proof is fourfold:

1. All people will be resurrected in Christ, through his redemptive work on the cross, per verses 21 and 22. This is strong evidence that all people will be saved, and so universalism is true.

2. Death will be absolutely abolished, per verse 26. This demonstrates that annihilationism and conditionalism are false, because for death to be abolished, all people must eventually be resurrected to immortality.

3. At the final resurrection, all things will finally be subjected to Christ, per verses 25 and 27. By comparison with other places in the Pauline corpus where subjection to Christ is mentioned, this is strong proof that ‘subjection to Christ’ is reconciliation, which means that all people will finally be reconciled to God.

4. After the final resurrection, God will be “all things in all”, per verse 28. This means that it is impossible for any person or any part of creation to remain separated from God, and therefore infernalism is false.

Therefore, this passage leaves absolutely no doubt as to the eventual fate of unbelievers; they will be resurrected to immortality and salvation at the consummation, and come to be in full communion with God.

    Furthermore, it is not true that, as some non-universalists have objected, this passage is merely tangential to Paul’s treatise on resurrection, and so should not be given too much weight. Rather, the chiastic structure of 1 Corinthians 15 demonstrates that verses 20 through 28 are actually the main focus of this chapter. The final abolition of death in verse 26 is the focus of another smaller-scale chiasmus in 1 Cor. 15:24-28, which shows that this is one of the ultimate goals of the resurrection. Thus, 1 Cor. 15:20-28 is an important part of Paul’s treatise on the resurrection; to Paul, the eventual vivification and reconciliation of all people is integral to understanding the truth of the resurrection.

Classical theism and divine simplicity

    In the last post , we looked at one aspect of classical theism (divine timelessness) that’s been rejected by many non-classical theists ...